The Leader in Scanner and Shortwave Communications

Return to

Monitoring Times Home Page


QUESTION POOL FOR TECHNICIAN CLASS - CORRECT ANSWERS ONLY

 

Question pool for the FCC’s questions for the technician class test.

These are in the public domain. The incorrect answers have been deleted,

leaving only the correct answers.

 

*For a copy of the graphics references that are to be used with this

question pool, see the graphic file in PDF format.

 

* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all Technician examinations beginning July 1, 2003, and is intended to be used up through June 30, 2007.

 

* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following each question number [e.g., in T1A01 (B), position B contains the correct answer text].

 

Question Pool ELEMENT 2 - TECHNICIAN CLASS as released by Question Pool Committee National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators on December 4, 2002

 

SUBELEMENT T1 - FCC Rules [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]

T1A Definition and purpose of Amateur Radio Service, Amateur-Satellite Service in places where the FCC regulates these services and elsewhere; Part 97 and FCC regulation of the amateur services; Penalties for unlicensed operation and for violating FCC rules; Prohibited transmissions.

 

T1A01  (B)  [97]

Who makes and enforces the rules for the amateur service in the United States?

B.  The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

 

T1A02  (D)  [97.1]

What are two of the five fundamental purposes for the amateur service in the United States?

D.  To increase the number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and improve international goodwill

 

T1A03  (D)  [97.3a5]

What is the definition of an amateur station?

D.  A radio station in the amateur service used for radio communications

 

T1A04  (A)  [97.113b]

When is an amateur station authorized to transmit information to the general public?

A.  Never

 

T1A05  (A)  [97.113a4, 97.113e]

When is an amateur station authorized to transmit music?

A.  Amateurs may not transmit music, except as an incidental part of an authorized rebroadcast of space shuttle communications

 

T1A06  (C)  [97.113a4, 97.211b, 97.217]

When is the transmission of codes or ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of a message transmitted by an amateur station?

C.  Codes and ciphers may not be used to obscure the meaning of a message, although there are special exceptions

 

T1A07  (B)  [97.3a10, 97.113b]

Which of the following one-way communications may NOT be transmitted in the amateur service?

B.  Broadcasts intended for reception by the general public

 

T1A08  (C)  [97.3a40]

What is an amateur space station?

C.  An amateur station located more than 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface

 

 

T1A09  (B)  [97.207a]

Who may be the control operator of an amateur space station?

B.  Any licensed amateur operator

 

T1A10  (A)  [97.113a4]

When may false or deceptive signals or communications be transmitted by an amateur station?

A.  Never

 

T1A11  (C)  [97.119a]

When may an amateur station transmit unidentified communications?

C.  Only when sent from a space station or to control a model craft

 

T1A12  (A)  [97.119a]

What is an amateur communication called that does NOT have the required station identification?

A.  Unidentified communications or signals

 

T1A13  (B)  [97.3a23]

What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?

B.  Harmful interference

 

T1A14  (A)  [97.3a10]

What does the term broadcasting mean?

A.  Transmissions intended for reception by the general public, either direct or

relayed

 

T1A15  (D)  [97.113a4]

Why is indecent and obscene language prohibited in the Amateur Service?

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T1A16  (B)  [97.113a3]

Which of the following is a prohibited amateur radio transmission?

B.  Using an autopatch to pick up business messages

 

T1B International aspect of Amateur Radio; International and domestic spectrum allocation; Spectrum sharing; International communications; reciprocal operation.

 

T1B01  (B)  [97.301a]

What are the frequency limits of the 6-meter band in ITU Region 2?

B.  50.0 - 54.0 MHz

 

T1B02  (A)  [97.301a]

What are the frequency limits of the 2-meter band in ITU Region 2?

A.  144.0 - 148.0 MHz

 

T1B03  (B)  [97.301f]

What are the frequency limits of the 1.25-meter band in ITU Region 2?

B.  222.0 - 225.0 MHz

 

T1B04  (C)  [97.301a]

What are the frequency limits of the 70-centimeter band in ITU Region 2?

C.  420.0 - 450.0 MHz

 

T1B05  (D)  [97.301a]

What are the frequency limits of the 33-centimeter band in ITU Region 2?

D.  902 - 928 MHz

 

T1B06  (B)  [97.301a]

What are the frequency limits of the 23-centimeter band in ITU Region 2?

B.  1240 - 1300 MHz

 

 

T1B07  (A)  [97.301a]

What are the frequency limits of the 13-centimeter band in ITU Region 2?

A.  2300 - 2310 MHz and 2390 - 2450 MHz

 

T1B08  (C)  [97.303]

If the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean?

C.  Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

 

T1B09  (C)  [97.101b]

What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the same frequency?

C.  Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency

 

T1B10  (D)  [97.301e]

If you are operating on 28.400 MHz, in what amateur band are you operating?

D.  10 meters

 

T1B11  (D)  [97.301f]

If you are operating on 223.50 MHz, in what amateur band are you operating?

D.  1.25 meters

 

T1B12  (D)  [97.111a1]

When are you allowed to communicate with an amateur in a foreign country?

D.  At any time, unless it is not allowed by either government

 

T1B13  (A)  [97.303h]

If you are operating FM phone on the 23-cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the US, what must you do?

A.  Stop operating or take steps to eliminate this harmful interference

 

T1B14  (A)  [97.107]

What does it mean for an amateur station to operate under reciprocal operating authority?

A.  The amateur is operating in a country other than his home country

 

T1B15  (A)  [97.303(f)(1)]

What are the frequency limits for the amateur radio service for stations located north of Line A in the 70-cm band?

A.  430 - 450 MHz

 

T1C All about license grants; Station and operator license grant structure including responsibilities, basic differences; Privileges of the various operator license classes; License grant term; Modifying and renewing license grant; Grace period.

 

T1C01  (C)  [97.5a]

Which of the following is required before you can operate an amateur station in the US?

C.  The FCC must grant you an amateur operator/primary station license

 

T1C02  (D)  [97.9a]

What are the US amateur operator licenses that a new amateur might earn?

D.  Technician, Technician with Morse code, General, Amateur Extra

 

T1C03  (C)  [97.5a]

How soon after you pass the examination elements required for your first Amateur Radio license may you transmit?

C.  As soon as the FCC grants you a license and the data appears in the FCC's ULS data base

 

 

T1C04  (A)  [97.21a3i]

How soon before the expiration date of your license may you send the FCC a completed Form 605 or file with the Universal Licensing System on the World Wide Web for a renewal?

A.  No more than 90 days

 

T1C05  (C)  [97.25a] What is the normal term for an amateur station license grant?

C.  10 years

 

T1C06  (A)  [97.21b]

What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an expired 10-year license?

A.  2 years

 

T1C07  (D)  [97.103a]

What is your responsibility as a station licensee?

D.  You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in accordance with the FCC rules

 

T1C08  (B)  [97.5d]

Where does a US amateur license allow you to operate?

B.  Wherever the amateur service is regulated by the FCC

 

T1C09  (B)  [97.113a3]

Under what conditions are amateur stations allowed to communicate with stations operating in other radio services?

B.  When authorized by the FCC or in an emergency

 

T1C10  (B)

To what distance limit may Technician class licensees communicate?

B.  There is no distance limit

 

T1C11  (A)

If you forget to renew your amateur license and it expires, may you continue to transmit?

A.  No, transmitting is not allowed

 

T1D Qualifying for a license; General eligibility; Purpose of examination; Examination elements; Upgrading operator license class; Element credit; Provision for physical disabilities.

 

T1D01  (A)  [97.5b1]

Who can become an amateur licensee in the US?

A.  Anyone except a representative of a foreign government

 

T1D02  (D)  [97.5b1]

What age must you be to hold an amateur license?

D.  There are no age limits

 

T1D03  (D)

What government agency grants your amateur radio license?

D.  The Federal Communications Commission

 

T1D04  (B)  [97.501c]

What element credit is earned by passing the Technician class written examination?

B.  Element 2

 

T1D05  (C)  [97.9b]

If you are a Technician licensee who has passed a Morse code exam, what is one document you can use to prove that you are authorized to use certain amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?

C.  A Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination showing that you have passed a Morse code exam

 

 

T1D06  (C)  [97.509a]

What is a Volunteer Examiner (VE)?

C.  An amateur, accredited by one or more VECs, who volunteers to administer amateur license exams

 

T1D07  (C)  [97.503b1]

What minimum examinations must you pass for a Technician amateur license?

C.  A single 35 question multiple choice written exam, Element 2

 

T1D08  (D)  [VE Instructions]

How may an Element 1 exam be administered to an applicant with a physical disability?

D.  By using a vibrating surface or flashing light

 

T1D09  (A)  [97.503a]

What is the purpose of the Element 1 examination?

A.  To test Morse code comprehension at 5 words-per-minute

 

T1D10 (A)  [97.505(A) (6)]

If a Technician class licensee passes only the 5 words-per-minute Morse code test at an exam session, how long will this credit be valid for license upgrade purposes?

A.  365 days

 

[T1D11 - This question has been formally withdrawn by the QPC. It will not be used on tests.]

T1D11  (D)  [97.505(A) (3),(5) and (7)]

Which of the following would confer credit for examination Element 1?

D.  All of these are correct

 

T1E Amateur station call sign systems including Sequential, Vanity and Special Event; ITU Regions; Call sign formats.

 

T1E01  (C)

Which of the following call signs is a valid US amateur call?

C.  KB3TMJ

 

T1E02  (B)

What letters must be used for the first letter in US amateur call signs?

B.  A, K, N and W

 

T1E03  (D)

What numbers are normally used in US amateur call signs?

D.  A single digit, 0 through 9

 

T1E04  (B)

In which ITU region is Alaska?

B.  ITU Region 2

 

T1E05  (C)

In which ITU region is Guam?

C.  ITU Region 3

 

T1E06  (B)  [97.119a]

What must you transmit to identify your amateur station?

B.  Your call sign

 

T1E07  (A)  [97.19]

How might you obtain a call sign made up of your initials?

A.  Under the vanity call sign program

 

 

T1E08  (A)  [97.21(A) (3)(ii)]

How may an amateur radio licensee change his call sign without applying for a vanity call?

A.  By requesting a systematic call sign change on an NCVEC Form 605

 

T1E09  (B)  [97.17b2]

How may an amateur radio club obtain a station call sign?

B.  You must apply through a Club Station Call Sign Administrator

 

T1E10  (C) 

Amateurs of which license classes are eligible to apply for temporary use of a 1-by-1 format Special Event call sign?

C.  Any FCC-licensed amateur

 

T1E11  (C)  [97.17d]

How does the FCC issue new amateur radio call signs?

C.  By ITU prefix letter(s), call sign district numeral and a suffix in strict

alphabetic order

 

T1E12  (D)

Which station call sign format groups are available to Technician Class amateur radio operators?

D.  Group C and D

 

SUBELEMENT T2 -- Methods of Communication  [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]

T2A How Radio Works; Electromagnetic spectrum; Magnetic/Electric Fields; Nature of Radio Waves; Wavelength; Frequency; Velocity; AC Sine wave/Hertz; Audio and Radio frequency.

 

T2A01  (A)

What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases?

A.  It gets shorter

 

T2A02  (C)

How does the frequency of a harmonic compare to the desired transmitting frequency?

C.  It is exactly two, or three, or more times the desired frequency

 

T2A03  (B)

What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?

B.  60 cycles per second

 

T2A04  (C)

What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle?

C.  Wavelength

 

T2A05  (A)

What is the fourth harmonic of a 50.25 MHz signal?

A.  201.00 MHz

 

T2A06  (C)

What is a radio frequency wave?

C.  Electromagnetic oscillations or cycles that repeat more than 20,000 times per second

 

T2A07  (B)

What is an audio-frequency signal?

B.  Electromagnetic oscillations or cycles that repeat between 20 and 20,000 times per second

 

T2A08  (D)

In what radio-frequency range do amateur 2-meter communications take place?

D.  VHF, Very High Frequency range

 

T2A09  (A)

Which of the following choices is often used to identify a particular radio wave?

A.  The frequency or the wavelength of the wave

 

T2A10  (D)

How is a radio frequency wave identified?

D.  All of  these choices are correct

 

T2A11  (A)

How fast does a radio wave travel through space (in a vacuum)?

A.  At the speed of light

 

T2A12  (B)

What is the standard unit of frequency measurement?

B.  A hertz

 

T2A13  (A)

What is the basic principle of radio communications?

A.  A radio wave is combined with an information signal and is transmitted; a receiver separates the two

 

T2A14  (B)

How is the wavelength of a radio wave related to its frequency?

B.  Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases

 

T2A15  (D) 

What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth?

D.  Frequency

 

T2A16  (A)  What is the basic unit of frequency?

A.  The hertz

 

T2B Frequency privileges granted to Technician class operators; Amateur service bands; Emission types and designators; Modulation principles; AM/FM/Single sideband/upper-lower, international Morse code (CW), RTTY, packet radio and data emission types; Full quieting.

 

T2B01  (B)  [97.301e]

What are the frequency limits of the 80-meter band in ITU Region 2 for Technician class licensees who have passed a Morse code exam?

B.  3675 - 3725 kHz

 

T2B02  (C)  [97.301e]

What are the frequency limits of the 10-meter band in ITU Region 2 for Technician class licensees who have passed a Morse code exam?

C.  28.100 - 28.500 MHz

 

T2B03  (C)  [97.3c2]

What name does the FCC use for telemetry, telecommand or computer communications emissions?

C.  Data

 

T2B04  (C)

What does "connected" mean in a packet-radio link?

C.  A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving station; it replies that the data is being received correctly

 

T2B05  (D)  [97.305, 97.307f9]

What emission types are Technician control operators who have passed a Morse code exam allowed to use from 7100 to 7150 kHz in ITU Region 2?

D.  CW only

 

T2B06  (C)  [97.305, 97.307f10]

What emission types are Technician control operators who have passed a Morse code exam allowed to use on frequencies from 28.3 to 28.5 MHz?

C.  CW and single-sideband phone

 

T2B07  (D)  [97.305]

What emission types are Technician control operators allowed to use on the amateur 1.25-meter band in ITU Region 2?

D.  All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on the band

 

T2B08  (B)

What term describes the process of combining an information signal with a radio signal?

B.  Modulation

 

T2B09  (D)

What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF repeaters?

D.  Frequency-modulated phone

 

T2B10  (C)

What does the term "phone transmissions" usually mean?

C.  AM, FM or SSB voice transmissions by radiotelephony

 

T2B11  (A)

Which sideband is commonly used for 10-meter phone operation?

A.  Upper sideband

 

T2B12  (C)  [97.313c2]

What is the most transmitter power a Technician control operator with telegraphy credit may use on the 10-meter band?

C.  200 watts PEP output

 

T2B13  (D)  [97.3c5]

What name does the FCC use for voice emissions?

D.  Phone

 

T2B14  (B)  [97.305c]

What emission privilege is permitted a Technician class operator in the 219 MHz - 220 MHz frequency range?

B.  Point-to-point digital message forwarding

 

T2B15  (A)

Which sideband is normally used for VHF/UHF SSB communications?

A.  Upper sideband

 

T2B16  (A)

Which of the following descriptions is used to describe a good signal through a repeater?

A.  Full quieting

 

[T2B17 - THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN FORMALLY WITHDRAWN BY THE QPC. IT WILL NOT BE USED ON TESTS.]

T2B17  (B)

What is the typical bandwidth of PSK31 digital communications?

B.  31 Hz

 

T2B18  (D)

What emissions do a transmitter using a reactance modulator produce?

D.  Phase-modulated phone

 

T2B19  (C)

What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?

C.  Frequency modulation

 

SUBELEMENT T3 - Radio Phenomena [2 Exam Questions - 2 Groups]

T3A  How a radio signal travels; Atmosphere/troposphere/ionosphere and ionized layers; Skip distance; Ground (surface)/sky (space) waves; Single/multihop; Path; Ionospheric absorption; Refraction.

 

T3A01  (D)

What is the name of the area of the atmosphere that makes long-distance radio communications possible by bending radio waves?

D.  Ionosphere

 

T3A02  (B)

Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?

B.  The D region

 

T3A03  (D)

Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for absorbing MF/HF radio signals during the daytime?

D.  The D region

 

T3A04  (D)

Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-distance sky-wave radio communications?

D.  F2 region

 

T3A05  (D)

When a signal travels along the surface of the Earth, what is this called?

D.  Ground-wave propagation

 

T3A06  (C)

What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere?

C.  Ultraviolet

 

T3A07  (C)

What is the usual cause of sky-wave propagation?

C.  Signals are bent back to Earth by the ionosphere

 

T3A08  (B)

What type of propagation has radio signals bounce several times between Earth and the ionosphere as they travel around the  Earth?

B.  Multi-hop

 

T3A09  (A)

What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower-frequency HF signals in the daytime?

A.  It absorbs the signals

 

T3A10  (C)

How does the signal loss for a given path through the troposphere vary with frequency?

C.  The path loss increases as the frequency increases

 

T3A11  (A)

When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this called?

A.  Sky-wave propagation

 

T3A12  (B)

How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground-wave propagation?

B.  It is much longer

 

T3B  HF vs. VHF vs. UHF characteristics; Types of VHF-UHF propagation; Daylight and seasonal variations; Tropospheric ducting; Line of sight; Maximum usable frequency (MUF); Sunspots and sunspot Cycle, Characteristics of different bands.

 

T3B01  (A)

When a signal travels in a straight line from one antenna to another, what is this called?

A.  Line-of-sight propagation

 

T3B02  (C)

What can happen to VHF or UHF signals going towards a metal-framed building?

C.  They can be reflected by the building

 

T3B03  (C)

Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?

C.  Troposphere

 

T3B04  (B)

What causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred miles over oceans?

B.  A widespread temperature inversion

 

T3B05  (B)

In which of the following frequency ranges does sky-wave propagation least often occur?

B.  UHF

 

T3B06  (A)

Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies?

A.  To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance communication

 

T3B07  (A)

How does the number of sunspots relate to the amount of ionization in the ionosphere?

A.  The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization

 

T3B08  (C)

How long is an average sunspot cycle?

C.  11 years

 

T3B09  (B)

Which of the following frequency bands is most likely to experience summertime sporadic-E propagation?

B.  6 meters

 

T3B10  (A)

Which of the following emission modes are considered to be weak-signal modes and have the greatest potential for DX contacts?

A.  Single sideband and CW

 

T3B11  (D)

What is the condition of the ionosphere above a particular area of the Earth just before local sunrise?

D.  Ionization is at a minimum

 

T3B12  (A)

What happens to signals that take off vertically from the antenna and are higher in frequency than the critical frequency?

A.  They pass through the ionosphere

 

T3B13  (A)

In relation to sky-wave propagation, what does the term "maximum usable frequency" (MUF) mean?

A.  The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination

 

SUBELEMENT T4 -- Station Licensee Duties [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]

T4A Correct name and mailing address on station license grant; Places from where station is authorized to transmit; Selecting station location; Antenna structure location; Stations installed aboard ship or aircraft.

 

T4A01  (C)  [97.11a] When may you operate your amateur station aboard a cruise ship?

C.  Only with the approval of the master of the ship and not using the ship's radio equipment

 

T4A02  (D)

When may you operate your amateur station somewhere in the US besides the address listed on your license?

D.  Whenever you want to

 

T4A03  (C)  [97.23]

What penalty may the FCC impose if you fail to provide your correct mailing address?

C.  Your amateur license could be revoked

 

T4A04  (A)

Under what conditions may you transmit from a location different from the address printed on your amateur license?

A.  If the location is under the control of the FCC, whenever the FCC Rules allow

 

T4A05  (B)  [97.23]Why must an amateur operator have a current US postal mailing address?

B.  To follow the FCC rules and so the licensee can receive mail from the FCC

 

T4A06  (B)  [97.21a1]

What is one way to notify the FCC if your mailing address changes?

B.  Fill out an FCC Form 605 using your new address, attach a copy of your license, and mail it to the FCC office in Gettysburg, PA

 

T4A07  (A)  [97.15(A)]

What do FCC rules require you to do if you plan to erect an antenna whose height exceeds 200 feet?

A.  Notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register with the FCC

 

T4A08 (D) [97.13c] [OET Bulletin 65 Supplement B] ["RF Exposure and You", W1RFI]

Which of the following is NOT an important consideration when selecting a location for a transmitting antenna?

D. Polarization of the feed line

 

T4A09  (B)  [97.15b]What is the height restriction the FCC places on Amateur Radio Service antenna structures without registration with the FCC and FAA?

B.  200 feet

 

T4A10  (C)  [97.11a]  When may you operate your amateur station aboard an aircraft?

C.  Only with the approval of the pilot in command and not using the aircraft's radio equipment

 

T4B Designation of control operator; FCC presumption of control operator; Physical control of station apparatus; Control point; Immediate station control; Protecting against unauthorized transmissions; Station records; FCC Inspection;

Restricted operation.

 

T4B01  (C)  [97.3a12]

What is the definition of a control operator of an amateur station?

C.  Any licensed amateur operator who is responsible for the station's transmissions

 

T4B02  (D)  [97.3a12]

What is the FCC's name for the person responsible for the transmissions from an amateur station?

D.  Control operator

 

T4B03  (C)  [97.7]

When must an amateur station have a control operator?

C.  Whenever the station is transmitting

 

T4B04  (B)  [97.3a13]

What is the term for the location at which the control operator function is performed?

B.  The control point

 

T4B05  (D)  [97.3a13]

What is the control point of an amateur station?

D.  The location at which the control operator function is performed

 

T4B06  (D)  [97.3a12]

When you operate your transmitting equipment alone, what is your official designation?

D.  Control operator

 

T4B07  (A)  [97.103b]

When does the FCC assume that you authorize transmissions with your call sign as the control operator?

A.  At all times

 

T4B08  (C)  [97.3a13]  What is the name for the operating position where the control operator has full control over the transmitter?

C.  Control point

 

T4B09  (B)  [97.103c] When is the FCC allowed to conduct an inspection of your amateur station?

B.  At any time

 

T4B10  (C)  [97.5d]

How many transmitters may an amateur licensee control at the same time?

C.  Any number

 

T4B11  (A)  [97.121]

If you have been informed that your amateur radio station causes interference to nearby radio or television broadcast receivers of good engineering design, what operating restrictions can FCC rules impose on your station?

A.  Require that you discontinue operation on frequencies causing interference during certain evening hours and on Sunday morning (local time)

 

T4B12  (B)

How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home?

B.  Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line

 

T4B13  (A) How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car?

A.  Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it

 

T4C Providing public service; emergency and disaster communications; Distress calling; Emergency drills and communications; Purpose of RACES. 

 

T4C01  (D)  [97.405a]

If you hear a voice distress signal on a frequency outside of your license privileges, what are you allowed to do to help the station in distress?

D.  You are allowed to help on a frequency outside your privileges in any way possible

 

T4C02  (C)  [97.403]

When may you use your amateur station to transmit an "SOS" or "MAYDAY"?

C.  In a life- or property-threatening emergency

 

T4C03  (A)  [97.401a]

If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area where the FCC regulates the amateur service, what kinds of transmissions may stations make?

A.  Those that are necessary to meet essential communication needs and facilitate relief actions

 

T4C04  (C)  [97.401c]

What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary state of communication emergency?

C.  Any special conditions and special rules to be observed during the emergency

 

T4C05  (D)

If you are in contact with another station and you hear an emergency call for help on your frequency, what should you do?

D.  Stop your QSO immediately and take the emergency call

 

T4C06  (A)

What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal a distress call?

A.  Say "BREAK" once, then your call sign

 

T4C07  (B)

What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command post" or "weather center" during an emergency?

B.  They are more efficient and help coordinate public-service communications

 

T4C08  (D)

What type of messages concerning a person's well being are sent into or out of a disaster area?

D.  Health and welfare traffic

 

T4C09  (B)

What are messages called that are sent into or out of a disaster area concerning the immediate safety of human life?

B.  Emergency traffic

 

T4C10  (B)

Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station without using commercial AC power lines?

B.  So you may provide communications in an emergency

 

T4C11  (C)

What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency?

C.  Several sets of charged batteries

 

T4C12  (C)

Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency?

C.  A dipole

 

T4C13  (D) How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill?

D.  As drill or test messages

 

T4C14  (C)

With what organization must you register before you can participate in RACES drills?

C.  The responsible civil defense organization

 

SUBELEMENT T5 - Control Operator Duties [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]

T5A Determining operating privileges, Where control operator must be situated while station is locally or remotely controlled; Operating other amateur stations. 

 

T5A01  (B)  [97.105b]

If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who has a higher-class license than yours, what operating privileges are you allowed?

B.  Only the privileges allowed by your license

 

T5A02  (A)

Assuming you operate within your amateur license privileges, what restrictions apply to operating amateur equipment?

A.  You may operate any amateur equipment

 

T5A03  (A)  [97.109b]

When an amateur station is transmitting, where must its control operator be, assuming the station is not under automatic control?

A.  At the station's control point

 

T5A04  (B)

Where  will you find a detailed list of your operating privileges?

B.  In FCC Part 97

 

T5A05  (A)  [97.103a]

If you transmit from another amateur's station, who is responsible for its proper operation?

A.  Both of you

 

T5A06  (A)  [97.105b]

If you let another amateur with a higher class license than yours control your station, what operating privileges are allowed?

A.  Any privileges allowed by the higher license, as long as proper

identification procedures are followed

 

T5A07  (B)  [97.105(B)]

If a Technician class licensee uses the station of a General class licensee, how may the Technician licensee operate?

B.  Within the limits of a Technician class license

 

T5A08  (C)  [97.109(D)]

What type of amateur station does not require the control operator to be present at the control point?

C.  An automatically controlled station

 

T5A09  (B)  [97.109b]

Why can't unlicensed persons in your family transmit using your amateur station

if they are alone with your equipment?

B.  They must be licensed before they are allowed to be control operators

 

T5A10  (C)

If you own a dual-band mobile transceiver, what requirement must be met if you set it up to operate as a crossband repeater?

C.  There must be a control operator at the system's control point

 

T5B Transmitter power standards; Interference to stations providing emergency communications; Station identification requirements.

 

T5B01  (C)  [97.119a]

How often must an amateur station be identified?

C.  At least every ten minutes during and at the end of a contact

 

T5B02  (C)  [97.119a]

What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end

communications?

C.  Each station must transmit its own call sign

 

 

T5B03  (B)  [97.119a]

What is the longest period of time an amateur station can operate without transmitting its call sign?

B.  10 minutes

 

[T5B04 - THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN FORMALLY WITHDRAWN BY THE QPC. IT WILL NOT BE USED ON TESTS.]

T5B04  (A)  [97.305a]

What emission type may always be used for station identification, regardless of the transmitting frequency?

A.  CW

 

T5B05  (D)  [97.3b6]

What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the modulation envelope?

D.  Peak envelope power

 

[T5B06 - THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN FORMALLY WITHDRAWN BY THE QPC. IT WILL NOT BE USED ON TESTS.]

T5B06  (A)  [97.313c]

On which band(s) may a Technician licensee who has passed a Morse code exam use up to 200 watts PEP output power?

A.  80, 40, 15, and 10 meters

 

T5B07  (D)  [97.313a]

What amount of transmitter power must amateur stations use at all times?

D.  The minimum legal power necessary to communicate

 

T5B08  (C)  [97.119b2]

If you are using a language besides English to make a contact, what language must you use when identifying your station?

C.  English

 

T5B09  (C)

If you are helping in a communications emergency that is being handled by a net

control operator, how might you best minimize interference to the net once you have checked in?

C.  Do not transmit on the net frequency until asked to do so by the net

operator

 

T5B10  (D)  [97.215a]

What are the station identification requirements for an amateur transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft?

D.  Station identification is not required if the transmitter is labeled with the station licensee's name, address and call sign

 

T5B11  (B)  [97.3a23]

Why is transmitting on a police frequency as a "joke" called harmful

interference that deserves a large penalty?

B.  It blocks police calls that might be an emergency and interrupts police communications

 

T5B12  (D)  [97.303]

If you are using a frequency within a band assigned to the amateur service on a secondary basis, and a station assigned to the primary service on that band causes interference, what action should you take?

D.  Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful interference to the other station, in violation of FCC rules

 

 

T5C Authorized transmissions, Prohibited practices; Third party communications; Retransmitting radio signals; One way communications.

 

 

T5C01  (D)  [97.119a]

If you answer someone on the air and then complete your communication without giving your call sign, what type of communication have you just conducted?

D.  Unidentified communication

 

T5C02  (A)  [97.111(B) (3)]

What is one example of one-way communication that Technician class control operators are permitted by FCC rules?

A.  Transmission for radio control of model craft

 

T5C03  (D)  [97.11a2]

What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station?

D.  No payment of any kind is allowed

 

T5C04  (A)  [97.3a44]

What is the definition of third-party communications?

A.  A message sent between two amateur stations for someone else

 

T5C05  (D)  [97.115a2]

When are third-party messages allowed to be sent to a foreign country?

D.  When the US has a third-party agreement with the foreign country or the third party is qualified to be a control operator

 

T5C06  (A)  [97.115b1]

If you let an unlicensed third party use your amateur station, what must you do at your station's control point?

A.  You must continuously monitor and supervise the third-party's participation

 

T5C07  (B)  [97.115c]

Besides normal identification, what else must a US station do when sending third-party communications internationally?

B.  The US station must transmit both call signs at the end of each

communication

 

T5C08  (C)  [97.113a4]

If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word "MAYDAY," what is this called?

C.  False or deceptive signals

 

T5C09  (C)  [97.119a]

If an amateur transmits to test access to a repeater without giving any station identification, what type of communication is this called?

C.  An illegal unidentified transmission

 

T5C10  (C)  [97.101d]

When may you deliberately interfere with another station's communications?

C.  Never

 

T5C11  (B)  [97.3a22]

If an amateur repeatedly transmits on a frequency already occupied by a group of amateurs in a net operation, what type of interference is this called?

B.  Harmful or malicious interference

 

T5C12  (B)

What device is commonly used to retransmit amateur radio signals?

B.  A repeater

 

SUBELEMENT T6 - Good Operating Practices [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]

T6A Calling another station; Calling CQ; Typical amateur service radio contacts; Courtesy and respect for others; Popular Q-signals; Signal reception reports; Phonetic alphabet for voice operations.

 

 

T6A01  (A)  [97.119b2]

What is the advantage of using the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) phonetic alphabet when identifying your station?

A.  The words are internationally recognized substitutes for letters

 

T6A02  (A)  [97.119b2]

What is one reason to avoid using "cute" phrases or word combinations to identify your station?

A.  They are not easily understood by non-English-speaking amateurs

 

T6A03  (A)

What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?

A.  Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency

 

T6A04  (B)

How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station's call sign?

B.  Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station

 

T6A05  (D)

What does RST mean in a signal report?

D.  Readability, signal strength, tone

 

T6A06  (D)

What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five nine plus 20 dB..."?

D.  A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater than strength 9

 

T6A07  (D)

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?

D.  Calling any station

 

T6A08  (C)

What is a QSL card in the amateur service?

C.  A written acknowledgment of communications between two amateurs

 

T6A09  (C)

What is the correct way to call CQ when using voice?

C.  Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times

 

T6A10  (D)

How should you answer a voice CQ call?

D.  Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is," then your call sign given phonetically

 

T6A11  (A)

What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting..."?

A.  Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise

 

T6A12  (B) What is meant by the term "DX"?

B.  Distant station

 

T6A13  (B)

What is the meaning of the term "73"?

B.  Best regards

 

T6B Occupied bandwidth for emission types; Mandated and voluntary band plans; CW operation.

 

T6B01  (C)

Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?

C.  CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice

 

T6B02  (D)

What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?

D.  Between 2 and 3 kHz

 

T6B03  (C)

What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal?

C.  Between 10 and 20 kHz

 

T6B04  (B)

What is the usual bandwidth of a UHF amateur fast-scan television signal?

B.  About 6 MHz

 

T6B05  (A)

What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations with the Internet?

A.  A gateway

 

T6B06  (A)

What is a band plan?

A.  A voluntary guideline beyond the divisions established by the FCC for using different operating modes within an amateur band

 

T6B07  (C)

At what speed should a Morse code CQ call be transmitted?

C.  Any speed at which you can reliably receive

 

T6B08  (A)

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "DE"?

A.  "From" or "this is," as in "W0AIH DE KA9FOX"

 

T6B09  (B)

What is a good way to call CQ when using Morse code?

B.  Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE," followed by your call sign sent three times

 

T6B10  (B)

How should you answer a Morse code CQ call?

B.  Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by "DE," followed by your call sign twice

 

T6B11  (A)

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "K"?

A.  "Any station transmit"

 

T6B12  (B) What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRS"?

B.  "Send more slowly"

 

T6C TVI and RFI reduction and elimination, Band/Low/High pass filter, Out of band harmonic Signals, Spurious Emissions, Telephone Interference, Shielding, Receiver Overload.

 

T6C01  (C) What is meant by receiver overload?

C.  Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby source

 

T6C02  (B)

What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF transmitter to cut down on harmonic radiation?

B.  A low-pass filter

 

T6C03  (B)

What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?

B.  High-pass

T6C04  (C)

What effect might a break in a cable television transmission line have on amateur communications?

C.  TV interference may result when the amateur station is transmitting, or interference may occur to the amateur receiver

 

T6C05  (A)

If you are told that your amateur station is causing television interference, what should you do?

A.  First make sure that your station is operating properly, and that it does not cause interference to your own television

 

T6C06  (C)

If harmonic radiation from your transmitter is causing interference to television receivers in your neighborhood, who is responsible for taking care of the interference?

C.  You alone are responsible, since your transmitter is causing the problem

 

T6C07  (D)

If signals from your transmitter are causing front-end overload in your neighbor's television receiver, who is responsible for taking care of the interference?

D.  The owner of the television receiver is responsible

 

T6C08  (A)

What circuit blocks RF energy above and below certain limits?

A.  A band-pass filter

 

T6C09  (D)

If someone tells you that signals from your hand-held transceiver are interfering with other signals on a frequency near yours, what may be the cause?

D.  Your hand-held may be transmitting spurious emissions

 

T6C10  (B)

What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

B.  It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency

 

T6C11  (D)

What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an HF transmitter?

D.  A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply

 

T6C12  (C)  (Reference: FCC CIB Telephone Interference Bulletin)

What is the major cause of telephone interference?

C.  The telephone was not equipped with interference protection when it was manufactured.

 

SUBELEMENT T7 Basic Communications Electronics [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]

T7A Fundamentals of electricity; AC/DC power; units and definitions of current, voltage, resistance, inductance, capacitance and impedance; Rectification; Ohm's Law principle (simple math); Decibel; Metric system and prefixes (e.g., pico,

nano, micro, milli, deci, centi, kilo, mega, giga).

 

T7A01  (D) 

What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

D.  Current

 

T7A02  (B)  What is the name of a current that flows only in one direction?

B.  A direct current

 

T7A03  (A)  What is the name of a current that flows back and forth, first in one direction, then in the opposite direction?

A.  An alternating current

 

T7A04  (B) 

What is the basic unit of electrical power?

B.  The watt

 

T7A05  (C) 

What is the basic unit of electric current?

C.  The ampere

 

T7A06  (A) 

How much voltage does an automobile battery usually supply?

A.  About 12 volts

 

T7A07  (D) 

What limits the current that flows through a circuit for a particular applied DC voltage?

D.  Resistance

 

T7A08  (D) 

What is the basic unit of resistance?

D.  The ohm

 

T7A09  (C) 

What is the basic unit of inductance?

C.  The henry

 

T7A10  (A) 

What is the basic unit of capacitance?

A.  The farad

 

T7A11  (B) 

Which of the following circuits changes an alternating current signal into a varying direct current signal?

B.  Rectifier

 

T7A12  (A) 

What formula shows how voltage, current and resistance relate to each other in an electric circuit?

A.  Ohm's Law

 

T7A13  (C) 

If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?

C.  100 volts

 

T7A14  (B) 

If a 100-ohm resistor is connected to 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor?

B.  2 amperes

 

T7A15  (B) 

If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance?

B.  30 ohms

 

T7A16  (B) 

If you increase your transmitter output power from 5 watts to 10 watts, what decibel (dB) increase does that represent?

B.  3 dB

 

T7A17  (C) 

If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?

C.  3 amperes

 

T7A18  (C) 

How many hertz are in a kilohertz?

C.  1000

 

T7A19  (C) 

If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?

C.  3525 kHz

 

T7A20  (B) 

How many microfarads is 1,000,000 picofarads?

B.  1 microfarad

 

T7A21  (B) 

If you have a hand-held transceiver with an output of 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be?

B.  0.5

 

T7B Basic electric circuits; Analog vs. digital communications; Audio/RF signal; Amplification.

 

T7B01  (A)

What type of electric circuit uses signals that can vary continuously over a certain range of voltage or current values?

A.  An analog circuit

 

T7B02  (B)

What type of electric circuit uses signals that have voltage or current values only in specific steps over a certain range?

B.  A digital circuit

 

T7B03  (C)

Which of the following is an example of an analog communications method?

C.  Frequency-modulated (FM) voice

 

T7B04  (D)

Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?

D.  Radioteletype (RTTY)

 

T7B05  (B)

Most humans can hear sounds in what frequency range?

B.  20 - 20,000 Hz

 

T7B06  (B)

Why do we call electrical signals in the frequency range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz audio frequencies?

B.  Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range

 

T7B07  (C)

What is the lowest frequency of electrical energy that is usually known as a radio frequency?

C.  20,000 Hz

 

T7B08  (B) Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?

B.  Radio

 

T7B09  (C)

If a radio wave makes 3,725,000 cycles in one second, what does this mean?

C.  The radio wave's frequency is 3725 kilohertz

 

T7B10  (A)

Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?

A.  A PNP transistor

 

T7B11  (C)

Which component can amplify a small signal but normally uses high voltages?

C.  A vacuum tube

 

T7C Concepts of Resistance/resistor; Capacitor/capacitance; Inductor/Inductance; Conductor/Insulator; Diode; Transistor; Semiconductor devices; Electrical functions of and schematic symbols of resistors, switches, fuses, batteries, inductors, capacitors, antennas, grounds and polarity; Construction of variable and fixed inductors and capacitors.

 

T7C01  (C)

Which of the following lists include three good electrical conductors?

C.  Gold, silver, aluminum

 

T7C02  (D)

What is one reason resistors are used in electronic circuits?

D.  To control the amount of current that flows for a particular applied voltage

 

T7C03  (D)

If two resistors are connected in series, what is their total resistance?

D.  The sum of the individual resistor values

 

T7C04  (A)

What is one reason capacitors are used in electronic circuits?

A.  To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating current to pass

 

T7C05  (A)

If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total

capacitance?

A.  Twice the value of one capacitor

 

T7C06  (B)

What does a capacitor do?

B.  It stores energy electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage

 

T7C07  (D)

Which of the following best describes a variable capacitor?

D.  Two sets of rotating conducting plates separated by an insulator, which can be varied in surface area exposed to each other

 

T7C08  (C)

What does an inductor do?

C.  It stores energy electromagnetically and opposes a change in current

 

T7C09  (C) What component controls current to flow in one direction only?

C.  A diode

 

T7C10  (A)

What is one advantage of using ICs (integrated circuits) instead of vacuum tubes in a circuit?

A.  ICs usually combine several functions into one package

 

T7C11  (C) 

Which symbol of Figure T7-1 represents a fixed resistor?

C.  Symbol 3

 

T7C12  (B)

In Figure T7-1, which symbol represents a variable resistor or potentiometer?

B.  Symbol 2

 

T7C13  (D)

In Figure T7-1, which symbol represents a single-cell battery?

D.  Symbol 13

 

T7C14  (B)

In Figure T7-1, which symbol represents an NPN transistor?

B.  Symbol 4

 

T7C15  (A)

Which symbol of Figure T7-1 represents a fixed-value capacitor?

A.  Symbol 1

 

T7C16  (B)

In Figure T7-1, which symbol represents an antenna?

B.  Symbol 7

 

T7C17  (A)

In Figure T7-1, which symbol represents a fixed-value iron-core inductor?

A.  Symbol 6

 

T7C18  (D)

In Figure T7-2, which symbol represents a single-pole, double-throw switch?

D.  Symbol 4

 

T7C19  (C) 

In Figure T7-2, which symbol represents a double-pole, single-throw switch?

C.  Symbol 3

 

SUBELEMENT T8 - Good Engineering Practice [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]

T8A Basic amateur station apparatus; Choice of apparatus for desired

communications; Setting up station; Constructing and modifying amateur station apparatus; Station layout for CW, SSB, FM, Packet and other popular modes.

 

T8A01  (C) 

What two bands are most commonly used by "dual band" hand-held transceivers?

C.  2 meters and 70 cm

 

T8A02  (A)

If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first?

A.  The power supply

 

T8A03  (B)

Which of the following devices would you need to conduct Amateur Radio communications using a data emission?

B.  A computer

 

T8A04  (B)

Which of the following devices would be useful to create an effective Amateur Radio station for weak-signal VHF communication?

B.  A multi-mode VHF transceiver

 

T8A05  (D) What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation?

D.  A microphone

 

T8A06  (B)

What would you connect to a transceiver to send Morse code?

B.  A telegraph key

 

T8A07  (B)

What do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code characters?

B.  An electronic keyer

 

T8A08  (D)

Why is it important to provide adequate power supply filtering for a CW transmitter?

D.  To eliminate modulation of the RF signal by AC hum

 

T8A09  (C)

Why is it important to provide adequate DC source supply filtering for a mobile transmitter or transceiver?

C.  To reduce stray noise and RF pick-up

 

T8A10  (A)

What would you connect to a transceiver for RTTY operation?

A.  A modem and a teleprinter or computer system

 

T8A11  (B)

What might you connect between your transceiver and an antenna switch connected to several antennas?

B.  An SWR meter

 

T8A12  (A)

What might happen if you set your receiver's signal squelch too low while attempting to receive packet mode transmissions?

A.  Noise may cause the TNC to falsely detect a data carrier

 

T8A13  (D)

What is one common method of transmitting RTTY on VHF/UHF bands?

D.  Modulate a conventional FM transmitter with a modem

 

T8A14  (D)

What would you use to connect a dual-band antenna to a mobile transceiver that has separate VHF and UHF output connectors?

D.  A duplexer

 

T8B How transmitters work; Operation and tuning; VFO; Transceiver; Dummy load; Antenna switch; Power supply; Amplifier; Stability; Microphone gain; FM deviation; Block diagrams of typical stations.

 

T8B01  (B)

Can a transceiver designed for FM phone operation also be used for single sideband in the weak-signal portion of the 2-meter band?

B.  Only if the radio is a "multimode" radio

 

T8B02   (B)

How is a CW signal usually transmitted?

B.  By on/off keying an RF signal

 

T8B03  (B)

What purpose does block 1 serve in the simple CW transmitter pictured in Figure T8-1?

B.  It controls the transmitter frequency

 

T8B04  (D)

What circuit is pictured in Figure T8-1 if block 1 is a variable-frequency oscillator?

D.  A VFO-controlled transmitter

 

T8B05  (C)

What circuit is shown in Figure T8-2 if block 1 represents a reactance modulator?

C.  An FM transmitter

 

T8B06  (D)

How would the output of the FM transmitter shown in Figure T8-2 be affected if the audio amplifier failed to operate (assuming block 1 is a reactance modulator)?

D.  The output would be an unmodulated carrier

 

 

T8B07  (A)

What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a 100-watt, single-sideband-phone transmitter?

A.  100 watts continuous

 

T8B08  (B)

A mobile radio may be operated at home with the addition of which piece of equipment?

B.  A power supply

 

T8B09  (C)

What might you use instead of a power supply for home operation of a mobile radio?

C.  A 12-volt battery

 

T8B10  (C)

What device converts 120 V AC to 12 V DC?

C.  A power supply

 

T8B11  (B)

What device could boost the low-power output from your hand-held radio up to 100 watts?

B.  A power amplifier

 

T8B12  (B)

What is the result of over deviation in an FM transmitter?

B.  Out-of-channel emissions

 

T8B13  (D)

What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver is over deviating?

D.  Talk farther away from the microphone

 

T8B14  (B)

In Figure T8-3, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is a dummy antenna, what is block 2?

B.  An antenna switch

 

T8B15  (D)

In Figure T8-3, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an antenna switch, what is block 3?

D.  A dummy antenna

 

T8B16  (B)

In Figure T8-4, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an SWR meter, what is block 3?

B.  An antenna tuner

 

T8B17  (C)

In Figure T8-4, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is an antenna tuner, what is block 2?

C.  An SWR meter

 

T8B18  (D)

In Figure T8-4, if block 2 is an SWR meter and block 3 is an antenna tuner, what is block 1?

D.  A transceiver

 

T8C How receivers work, operation and tuning, including block diagrams; Super-heterodyne including Intermediate frequency; Reception; Demodulation or Detection; Sensitivity; Selectivity; Frequency standards; Squelch and audio gain (volume) control.

 

T8C01  (C) What type of circuit does Figure T8-5 represent if block 1 is a product detector?

C.  A simple CW and SSB receiver

 

T8C02  (D)

If Figure T8-5 is a diagram of a simple single-sideband receiver, what type of circuit should be shown in block 1?

D.  A product detector

 

T8C03  (D)

What circuit is pictured in Figure T8-6, if block 1 is a frequency discriminator?

D.  An FM receiver

 

T8C04  (A)

What is block 1 in the FM receiver shown in Figure T8-6?

A.  A frequency discriminator

 

T8C05  (B)

What would happen if block 1 failed to function in the FM receiver diagram shown in Figure T8-6?

B.  There would be no audio output

 

T8C06  (C)

What circuit function is found in all types of receivers?

C.  A detector

 

T8C07  (C)

What is one accurate way to check the calibration of your receiver's tuning dial?

C.  Tune to one of the frequencies of station WWV or WWVH

 

T8C08  (B)

What circuit combines signals from an IF amplifier stage and a beat-frequency oscillator (BFO), to produce an audio signal?

B.  A detector circuit

 

T8C09  (C)

Why is FM voice so effective for local VHF/UHF radio communications?

C.  It has audio that is less affected by interference from static-type electrical noise than the AM modes

 

T8C10  (D)

Why do many radio receivers have several IF filters of different bandwidths that can be selected by the operator?

D.  Because some emission types need a wider bandwidth than others to be received properly

 

T8C11  (C)

What is the function of a mixer in a super heterodyne receiver?

C.  To shift the frequency of the received signal so that it can be processed by IF stages

 

T8C12  (D) What frequency or frequencies could the radio shown in Figure T8-7 receive?

D.  147.0 MHz and 168.4 MHz

 

T8C13  (C)

What type of receiver is shown in Figure T8-7?

C.  Single-conversion super heterodyne

 

T8C14  (B)

What emission mode could the receiver in Figure T8-7 detect?

B.  FM

 

T8C15  (C)

Where should the squelch be set for the proper operation of an FM receiver?

C.  At the point that just silences background noise

 

 

T8D How antennas work; Radiation principles; Basic construction; Half wave

dipole length vs. frequency; Polarization; Directivity; ERP; Directional/non-directional antennas; Multiband antennas; Antenna gain; Resonant frequency; Loading coil; Electrical vs. physical length; Radiation pattern; Transmatch.

 

T8D01  (C)

Which of the following will improve the operation of a hand-held radio inside a vehicle?

C.  An external antenna on the roof

 

T8D02  (B)

Which is true of "rubber duck" antennas for hand-held transceivers?

B.  They are much less efficient than a quarter-wavelength telescopic antenna

 

T8D03  (B)

What would be the length, to the nearest inch, of a half-wavelength dipole antenna that is resonant at 147 MHz?

B.  37 inches

 

T8D04 (C)

How long should you make a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 223 MHz (measured to the nearest inch)?

C.  25 inches

 

T8D05  (C)

How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz (measured to the nearest inch)?

C.  19 inches

 

T8D06  (C)

How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 440 MHz (measured to the nearest inch)?

C.  6 inches

 

T8D07  (B)

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the gain of a properly designed Yagi antenna?

B.  Boom length

 

T8D08  (C)

Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

C.  1/2 wavelength

 

T8D09  (D) In Figure T8-8, what is the name of element 2 of the Yagi antenna?

D.  Driven element

 

T8D10  (A)

In Figure T8-8, what is the name of element 3 of the Yagi antenna?

A.  Director

 

T8D11  (B) In Figure T8-8, what is the name of element 1 of the Yagi antenna?

B.  Reflector

 

T8D12  (B) What is a cubical quad antenna?

B.  Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long

 

T8D13  (B) What does horizontal wave polarization mean?

B.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface

 

T8D14  (C) What does vertical wave polarization mean?

C.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface

 

T8D15  (C) If the ends of a half-wavelength dipole antenna (mounted at least a half-wavelength high) point east and west, which way would the antenna send out radio energy?

C.  Mostly north and south

 

T8D16  (B)

What electromagnetic wave polarization do most repeater antennas have in the VHF and UHF spectrum?

B.  Vertical

 

T8D17  (C) What electromagnetic wave polarization is used for most satellite operation?

C.  Circular

 

T8D18  (B) Which antenna polarization is used most often for weak signal VHF/UHF SSB operation?

B.  Horizontal

 

T8D19  (C) How will increasing antenna gain by 3 dB affect your signal's effective radiated power in the direction of maximum radiation?

C.  It will double it

 

T8D20  (A) What is one advantage to using a multiband antenna?

A.  You can operate on several bands with a single feed line

 

T8D21  (D) What could be done to reduce the physical length of an antenna without changing its resonant frequency?

D.  Add a loading coil

 

T8D22  (C) What device might allow use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for?

C.  An antenna tuner

 

T8E How transmission lines work; Standing waves/SWR/SWR-meter; Impedance matching; Types of transmission lines; Feed point; Coaxial cable; Balun; Waterproofing Connections.

 

T8E01  (D) What does standing-wave ratio mean?

D.  The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line

 

T8E02  (C) What instrument is used to measure standing wave ratio?

C.  An SWR meter

 

T8E03  (D) What would an SWR of 1:1 indicate about an antenna system?

D.  That the impedance of the antenna and its transmission line were matched

 

T8E04  (D) What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean?

D.  An impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna system

 

T8E05  (A) What does an antenna tuner do?

A.  It matches a transceiver output impedance to the antenna system impedance

 

T8E06  (D) What is a coaxial cable?

D.  A center wire inside an insulating material covered by a metal sleeve or shield

 

T8E07  (A) Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF

antenna system?

A.  To keep RF loss low

 

T8E08  (B) What is parallel-conductor feed line?

B.  Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating material

 

T8E09  (D) Which of the following are some reasons to use parallel-conductor, open-wire feed line?

D.  It will operate well even with a high SWR and has less loss than coaxial cable

 

T8E10  (D) What does "balun" mean?

D.  Balanced to unbalanced

 

T8E11  (A) Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A.  Between the coaxial cable and the antenna

 

T8E12  (C) What happens to radio energy when it is sent through a poor quality coaxial cable?

C.  It is converted to heat in the cable

 

T8E13  (C) What is an unbalanced line?

C.  A feed line with one conductor connected to ground

 

T8E14  (C) What point in an antenna system is called the feed point?

C.  At the point where the feed line joins the antenna

 

T8F Voltmeter/ammeter/ohmmeter/multi/S-meter, peak reading and RF watt meter; Building/modifying equipment; Soldering; Making measurements; Test instruments.

 

T8F01  (B)

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?

B.  A voltmeter

 

T8F02  (B) How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?

B.  In parallel with the circuit

 

T8F03  (A) What happens inside a voltmeter when you switch it from a lower to a higher voltage range?

A.  Resistance is added in series with the meter

 

T8F04  (A) How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?

A.  In series with the circuit

 

T8F05  (D) Which instrument would you use to measure electric current?

D.  An ammeter

 

T8F06  (D) What test instrument would be useful to measure DC resistance?

D.  An ohmmeter

 

T8F07  (C) What might damage a multimeter that uses a moving-needle meter?

C.  Measuring voltage when using the ohms setting

 

T8F08  (D) For which of the following measurements would you normally use a multimeter?

D.  Voltage, current and resistance

 

T8F09  (A) What is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver?

A.  An S meter

 

T8F10  (A) With regard to a transmitter and antenna system, what does "forward power" mean?

A.  The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna

 

T8F11  (B) With regard to a transmitter and antenna system, what does "reflected power" mean?

B.  The power returned towards the source on a transmission line

 

T8F12  (B) At what line impedance do most RF watt meters usually operate?

B.  50 ohms

 

T8F13  (B) If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 watts forward power and 10 watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?

B.  80 watts

 

T8F14  (B) What is the minimum FCC certification required for an amateur radio operator to build or modify their own transmitting equipment?

B.  A Technician class license

 

T8F15  (D) What safety step should you take when soldering?

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T8F16  (D) Where would you connect a voltmeter to a 12-volt transceiver if you think the supply voltage may be low when you transmit?

D.  At the 12-volt plug on the chassis of the equipment

 

T8F17  (D) If your mobile transceiver does not power up, what might you check first?

D.  The 12-volt fuses

 

T8F18  (C) What device produces a stable, low-level signal that can be set to a desired frequency?

C.  A signal generator

 

T8F19  (D) In Figure T8-9, what circuit quantity would meter B indicate?

D.  The current flowing through the resistor

 

T8F20  (B) In Figure T8-9, what circuit quantity is meter A reading?

B.  Battery voltage

 

T8F21  (A) In Figure T8-9, how would the power consumed by the resistor be calculated?

A.  Multiply the value of the resistor times the square of the reading of meter

 

SUBELEMENT T9 - Special Operations [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]T9A How an FM Repeater Works; Repeater operating procedures; Available frequencies; Input/output frequency separation; Repeater ID requirements; Simplex operation; Coordination; Time out; Open/closed repeater; Responsibility for interference.

 

T9A01  (B) What is the purpose of repeater operation?

B.  To help mobile and low-power stations extend their usable range

 

T9A02  (B) What is a courtesy tone, as used in repeater operations?

B.  A sound used to indicate when a transmission is complete

 

T9A03  (D) During commuting rush hours, which type of repeater operation should be discouraged?

D.  Third-party communications nets

 

T9A04  (D) Which of the following is a proper way to break into a conversation on a repeater?

D.  Say your call sign during a break between transmissions

 

T9A05  (A) When using a repeater to communicate, which of the following do you need to know about the repeater?

A.  Its input frequency and offset

 

T9A06  (C) Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a repeater?

C.  To listen for anyone wanting to break in

 

T9A07  (A) Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?

A.  A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the

 

T9A08  (A) How could you determine if a repeater is already being used by other stations?

A.  Ask if the frequency is in use, then give your call sign

 

T9A09  (A) What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in the 2-meter band?

A.  600 kHz

 

T9A10  (D) What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in the 70-centimeter band?

D.  5.0 MHz

 

T9A11  (A) What does it mean to say that a repeater has an input and an output frequency?

A.  The repeater receives on one frequency and transmits on another

 

T9A12  (C) What is the most likely reason you might hear Morse code tones on a repeater frequency?

C.  The repeater's identification

 

T9A13  (A) What is the common amateur meaning of the term "simplex operation"?

A.  Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency

 

T9A14  (B) When should you use simplex operation instead of a repeater?

B.  When a contact is possible without using a repeater

 

T9A15  (A) If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?

A.  See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input frequency

 

T9A16  (D) What is it called if the frequency coordinator recommends that you operate on a specific repeater frequency pair?

D.  Repeater frequency coordination

 

T9A17  (D)  What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?

D.  It limits the amount of time a repeater can transmit continuously

 

T9A18  (A)  What should you do if you hear a closed repeater system that you would like to be able to use?

A.  Contact the control operator and ask to join

 

T9A19  (B) Who pays for the site rental and upkeep of most repeaters?

B.  The repeater owner and donations from its users

 

T9A20  (D)  [97.205c]  If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of both repeaters, who is responsible for resolving the interference?

D.  Both repeater licensees

 

T9B Beacon, satellite, space, EME communications; Radio control of models; Autopatch; Slow scan television; Telecommand; CTCSS tone access; Duplex/crossband operation.

 

T9B01  (A)  [97.3a9]What is an amateur station called that transmits communications for the purpose of observation of propagation and reception?

A.  A beacon

 

T9B02  (D)  [97.203c,d,g]Which of the following is true of amateur radio beacon stations?

A.  Automatic control is allowed in certain band segments

B.  One-way transmissions are permitted

C.  Maximum output power is 100 watts

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T9B03  (C)  [97.209a]The control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite must hold what class of license?

C.  Any class

 

T9B04  (B)How does the Doppler effect change an amateur satellite's signal as the

satellite passes overhead?

B.  The signal's frequency increases or decreases

 

T9B05  (D) Why do many amateur satellites operate on the VHF/UHF bands?

D.  Because VHF and UHF signals easily pass through the ionosphere

 

T9B06  (C) Which antenna system would NOT be a good choice for an EME (moonbounce) station?

C.  A ground-plane antenna

 

T9B07  (B) What does the term "apogee" refer to when applied to an Earth satellite?

B.  The most distant point from the Earth in the satellite's orbit

 

T9B08  (A) What does the term "perigee" refer to when applied to an Earth satellite?

A.  The closest point to the Earth in the satellite's orbit

 

T9B09  (D) What mathematical parameters describe a satellite's orbit?

D.  Its Keplerian elements

 

T9B10  (A) What is the typical amount of time an amateur has to communicate with the International Space Station?

A.  4 to 6 minutes per pass

 

T9B11  (A) Which of the following would be the best emission mode for two-way EME contacts?

A.  CW

 

T9B12 (C) [97.215a]

What minimum information must be on a label affixed to a transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft?

C.  Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address

 

T9B13  (C) What is an autopatch?

C.  A device that allows radio users to access the public telephone system

 

T9B14  (C) Which of the following statements about Amateur Radio autopatch usage is true?

C.  Communication through the autopatch is not private

 

T9B15  (B)

Which of the following will allow you to monitor Amateur Television (ATV) on the 70-cm band?

B.  A cable ready TV receiver

 

T9B16  (A)

When may slow-scan television be transmitted through a 2-meter repeater?

A.  At any time, providing the repeater control operator authorizes this unique transmission

 

T9B17  (C)  [97.3a43]What is the definition of telecommand?

C.  A one way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a

device at a distance

 

T9B18  (D)  [97.213a,b,c]What provisions must be in place for the legal operation of a telecommand station?

A.  The station must have a wire line or radio control link

B.  A photocopy of the station license must be posted in a conspicuous location

C.  The station must be protected so that no unauthorized transmission can be

made

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T9B19  (B)

What is a continuous tone-coded squelch system (CTCSS) tone (sometimes called PL -- a Motorola trademark)?

B.  A sub-audible tone, added to a carrier, which may cause a receiver to accept the signal

 

T9B20  (D)

What does it mean if you are told that a tone is required to access a repeater?

D.  You must use a subaudible tone-coded squelch with your signal to operate it

 

T9B21  (D)

What is the term that describes a repeater that receives signals on one band and retransmits them on another band?

D.  A crossband repeater

 

SUBELEMENT T0 - Electrical, Antenna Structure and RF Safety Practices [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]

T0A Sources of electrical danger in amateur stations: lethal voltages, high current sources, fire; avoiding electrical shock; Station wiring; Wiring a three wire electrical plug; Need for main power switch; Safety interlock switch; Open/short circuit; Fuses; Station grounding.

 

T0A01  (A)

What is the minimum voltage that is usually dangerous to humans?

A.  30 volts

 

T0A02  (D)

Which electrical circuit draws high current?

D.  A short circuit

 

T0A03  (C)

What could happen to your transceiver if you replace its blown 5 amp AC line fuse with a 30 amp fuse?

C.  The transceiver could use more current than 5 amps and a fire could occur

 

T0A04  (A)

How much electrical current flowing through the human body will probably be fatal?

A.  As little as 1/10 of an ampere

 

T0A05  (A) Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current?

A.  The heart

 

T0A06  (B)

For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded in an amateur station?

B.  All station equipment connected to a common ground

 

T0A07  (D) Which potential does the green wire in a three-wire electrical plug represent?

D.  Ground

 

T0A08  (C) What is an important consideration for the location of the main power switch?

C.  Everyone should know where it is located in case of an emergency

 

T0A09  (A)

What circuit should be controlled by a safety interlock switch in an amateur transceiver or power amplifier?

A.  The power supply

 

T0A10  (C) What type of electrical circuit is created when a fuse blows?

C.  An open circuit

 

T0A11  (D)

Why would it be unwise to touch an ungrounded terminal of a high voltage capacitor even if it's not in an energized circuit?

D.  You could receive a shock from a residual stored charge

 

T0A12  (A)

What safety equipment item should you always add to home built equipment that is powered from 110 volt AC lines?

A.  A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the equipment

 

T0A13  (D)

When fuses are installed in 12-volt DC wiring, where should they be placed?

D.  At the voltage source

 

T0B Lightning protection; Antenna structure installation safety; Tower climbing Safety; Safety belt/hard hat/safety glasses; Antenna structure limitations.

 

T0B01  (C)

How can an antenna system best be protected from lightning damage?

C.  Ground all antennas when they are not in use

 

T0B02  (D)

How can amateur station equipment best be protected from lightning damage?

D.  Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables

 

T0B03  (C)

Why should you wear a hard hat and safety glasses if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?

C.  To protect your head from something dropped from the tower

 

T0B04  (D)

What safety factors must you consider when using a bow and arrow or slingshot and weight to shoot an antenna-support line over a tree?

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T0B05  (B)

Which of the following is the best way to install your antenna in relation to overhead electric power lines?

B.  Always be sure your antenna and feed line are well clear of any power lines

 

T0B06  (C)

What should you always do before attempting to climb an antenna tower?

C.  Put on your safety belt and safety glasses

 

T0B07  (D)

What is the most important safety precaution to take when putting up an antenna tower?

D.  Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires

 

T0B08  (A)

What should you consider before you climb a tower with a leather climbing belt?

A.  If the leather is old, it is probably brittle and could break unexpectedly

 

T0B09  (D)

What should you do before you climb a guyed tower?

A.  Tell someone that you will be up on the tower

B.  Inspect the tower for cracks or loose bolts

C.  Inspect the guy wires for frayed cable, loose cable clamps, loose

turnbuckles or loose guy anchors

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T0B10  (D) What should you do before you do any work on top of your tower?

A.  Tell someone that you will be up on the tower

B.  Bring a variety of tools with you to minimize your trips up and down the

tower

C.  Inspect the tower before climbing to become aware of any antennas or other

obstacles that you may need to step around

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T0C Definition of RF radiation; Procedures for RF environmental safety; Definitions and guidelines.

 

T0C01  (A)

What is radio frequency radiation?

A.  Waves of electric and magnetic energy between 3 kHz and 300 GHz

 

T0C02  (B)

Why is it a good idea to adhere to the FCC's Rules for using the minimum power needed when you are transmitting with your hand-held radio?

B.  To reduce the level of RF radiation exposure to the operator's head

 

T0C03  (A)

Which of the following units of measurement are used to specify the power density of a radiated RF signal?

A.  Milliwatts per square centimeter

 

T0C04  (D)

Over what frequency range are the FCC Regulations most stringent for RF radiation exposure?

D.  Frequencies between 30 MHz and 300 MHz

 

T0C05  (B)

Which of the following categories describes most common amateur use of a hand-held transceiver?

B.  Portable devices

 

T0C06  (D)

From an RF safety standpoint, what impact does the duty cycle have on the minimum safe distance separating an antenna and people in the neighboring environment?

A.  Tell someone that you will be up on the tower

B.  Inspect the tower for cracks or loose bolts

C.  Inspect the guy wires for frayed cable, loose cable clamps, loose turnbuckles or loose guy anchors

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T0C07  (A)

Why is the concept of "duty cycle" one factor used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

A.  It takes into account the amount of time the transmitter is operating at full power during a single transmission

 

T0C08  (D)

What factors affect the resulting RF fields emitted by an amateur transceiver that expose people in the environment?

A.  Frequency and power level of the RF field

B.  Antenna height and distance from the antenna to a person

C.  Radiation pattern of the antenna

D.  All of these answers are correct

 

T0C09  (B)

What unit of measurement specifies RF electric field strength?

B.  Volts per meter (V/m)

 

T0C10  (D)

Which of the following is considered to be non-Ionizing radiation?

D.  Radio frequency radiation

 

T0C11  (C)

What do the FCC RF radiation exposure regulations establish?

C.  Maximum permissible exposure limits

 

T0C12  (C)

Which of the following steps would help you to comply with RF-radiation exposure guidelines for uncontrolled RF environments?

C.  Reduce transmitting times within a 30-minute period to reduce the station duty cycle

 

T0C13  (C)

Which of the following steps would help you to comply with RF-exposure guidelines for controlled RF environments?

C.  Reduce transmitting times within a 6-minute period to reduce the station duty cycle

 

T0C14  (B)

To avoid excessively high human exposure to RF fields, how should amateur antennas generally be mounted?

B.  As far away from accessible areas as possible

 

T0C15  (D)

What action can amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of the FCC-specified limits?

A.  Alter antenna patterns

B.  Relocate antennas

C.  Revise station technical parameters, such as frequency, power, or emission type

D.  All of these choices are correct

 

T0C16  (C) 

Which of the following radio frequency emissions will result in the least RF radiation exposure if they all have the same peak envelope power (PEP)?

C.  Two-way exchanges of single-sideband (SSB) telephony

 

T0C17  (C)

Why is the concept of "specific absorption rate (SAR)" one factor used to

determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

C.  It takes into account the rate at which the human body absorbs RF energy at

a particular frequency

 

T0C18  (D)

Why must the frequency of an RF source be considered when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

D.  The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

 

T0C19  (C)

What is the maximum power density that may be emitted from an amateur station under the FCC RF radiation exposure limits?

C.  The FCC Rules specify exposure limits, not emission limits

 

T0D Radiofrequency exposure standards; Near/far field, Field strength; Compliance distance; Controlled/Uncontrolled environment.

 

T0D01  (A)

What factors must you consider if your repeater station antenna will be located at a site that is occupied by antennas for transmitters in other services?

A.  Your radiated signal must be considered as part of the total RF radiation from the site when determining RF radiation exposure levels

 

T0D02  (C) Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

C.  The body's ability to absorb RF energy varies with frequency

 

T0D03  (C)

Why might mobile transceivers produce less RF radiation exposure than hand-held transceivers in mobile operations?

C.  When mounted on a metal vehicle roof, mobile antennas are generally well shielded from vehicle occupants

 

T0D04  (C)

In the far field, as the distance from the source increases, how does power density vary?

C.  The power density is proportional to the inverse square of the distance

 

T0D05  (D)

In the near field, how does the field strength vary with distance from the source?

D.  It depends on the type of antenna being used

 

T0D06  (A)

Why should you never look into the open end of a microwave feed horn antenna while the transmitter is operating?

A.  You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure of RF radiation

 

T0D07  (A)

What factors determine the location of the boundary between the near and far fields of an antenna?

A.  Wavelength and the physical size of the antenna

 

T0D08  (A) 

Referring to Figure T0-1, which of the following equations should you use to calculate the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) on the Technician (with code credit) HF bands for a controlled RF radiation exposure environment?

A.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 900 divided by the square of the operating frequency, in MHz

 

T0D09  (B)  

Referring to Figure T0-1, what is the formula for calculating the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for uncontrolled environments on the 2-meter

(146 MHz) band?

B.  There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 0.2 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 30 minutes

 

T0D10  (A)  

What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna on 7 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Figure T0-2?

A.  1.4 foot

 

T0D11  (C) 

What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 3-element "triband" Yagi antenna on 28 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Figure T0-2?

C.  24.5 feet

 

T0D12  (A)

What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave whip antenna at 10 watts, as specified in Figure T0-2?

A.  1.7 feet

 

T0D13  (D)

What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17-element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 100 watts, as specified in Figure T0-2?

D.  32.4 feet

 

T0D14  (B) What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave ground plane vertical antenna at 10 watts, as specified in Figure T0-2?

B.  4.3 feet

 

T0E RF Biological effects and potential hazards; Radiation exposure limits; OET Bulletin 65; MPE (Maximum permissible exposure).

 

T0E01  (A)

If you do not have the equipment to measure the RF power densities present at your station, what might you do to ensure compliance with the FCC RF radiation exposure limits?

A.  Use one or more of the methods included in the amateur supplement to FCC OET Bulletin 65

 

T0E02  (C) 

Where will you find the applicable FCC RF radiation maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits defined?

C.  FCC Part 1 and Office of Engineering and Technology (OET) Bulletin 65

 

T0E03  (D)

To determine compliance with the maximum permitted exposure (MPE) levels, safe exposure levels for RF energy are averaged for an "uncontrolled" RF environment over what time period?

D.  30 minutes

 

T0E04  (A)

To determine compliance with the maximum permitted exposure (MPE) levels, safe exposure levels for RF energy are averaged for a "controlled" RF environment over what time period?

A.  6 minutes

 

T0E05  (D)

Why are Amateur Radio operators required to meet the FCC RF radiation exposure limits?

D.  To ensure a safe operating environment for amateurs, their families and neighbors

 

T0E06  (C)

At what frequencies do the FCC's RF radiation exposure guidelines incorporate limits for Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE)?

C.  All frequencies between 300 kHz and 100 GHz

 

T0E07  (D) On what value are the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits based?

D.  The whole-body specific absorption rate (SAR)

 

T0E08  (C) What is one biological effect to the eye that can result from RF exposure?

C.  It can cause heating, which can result in the formation of cataracts

 

T0E09  (C) Which of the following effects on the human body are a result of exposure to high levels of RF energy?

C.  Possible heating of body tissue

 

T0E10  (D)

Why should you not stand within reach of any transmitting antenna when it is being fed with 1500 watts of RF energy?

D.  You could accidentally touch the antenna and be injured

 

T0E11  (B)

What is one effect of RF non-ionizing radiation on the human body?

B.  Heating of body tissues

 

T0F Routine station evaluation.

 

T0F01  (D) Is it necessary for you to perform mathematical calculations of the RF radiation exposure if your VHF station delivers more than 50 watts peak envelope power (PEP) to the antenna?

D.  No, there are alternate means to determine if your station meets the RF radiation exposure limits

 

T0F02  (A) What is one method that amateur radio licensees may use to conduct a routine station evaluation to determine whether the station is within the Maximum Permissible Exposure guidelines?

A.  Direct measurement of the RF fields

 

T0F03  (A)

What document establishes mandatory procedures for evaluating compliance with RF exposure limits?

A.  There are no mandatory procedures

 

T0F04  (B)

Which category of transceiver is NOT excluded from the requirement to perform a routine station evaluation?

B.  VHF base station transmitters that deliver more than 50 watts peak envelope power (PEP) to an antenna

 

T0F05  (C)

Which of the following antennas would (generally) create a stronger RF field on the ground beneath the antenna?

C.  A 1/2 wave dipole antenna 5 meters above ground

 

T0F06  (D)

How may an amateur determine that his or her station complies with FCC RF-exposure regulations?

A.  By calculation, based on FCC OET Bulletin No. 65

B.  By calculation, based on computer modeling

C.  By measurement, measuring the field strength using calibrated equipment

D.  Any of these choices

 

T0F07  (B)

Below what power level at the input to the antenna are amateur radio operators categorically excluded from routine evaluation to predict if the RF exposure from their VHF station could be excessive?

B.  50 watts peak envelope power (PEP)

 

T0F08  (B)

Above what power level is a routine RF radiation evaluation required for a VHF station?

B.  50 watts peak envelope power (PEP) measured at the antenna input

 

T0F09  (D) What must you do with the records of a routine RF radiation exposure evaluation?

D.  Though not required, records may prove useful if the FCC asks for documentation to substantiate that an evaluation has been performed

 

T0F10  (A)

Which of the following instruments might you use to measure the RF radiation exposure levels in the vicinity of your station?

A.  A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated field strength sensor

 

T0F11  (A)

What effect does the antenna gain have on a routine RF exposure evaluation?

A.  Antenna gain is part of the formulas used to perform calculations

 

T0F12  (C)

As a general rule, what effect does antenna height above ground have on the RF exposure environment?

C.  The higher the antenna the less the RF radiation exposure at ground level

 

T0F13  (C)

Why does the FCC consider a hand-held transceiver to be a portable device when evaluating for RF radiation exposure?

C.  Because it's transmitting antenna is generally within 20 centimeters of the human body

 

T0F14  (C)

Which of the following factors must be taken into account when using a computer program to model RF fields at your station?

C.  Ground interactions

 

T0F15  (C)

In which of the following areas is it most difficult to accurately evaluate the effects of RF radiation exposure?

C.  In the near field

 

*End Of File!

 

To take a practice test on the web, try this site:

http://www.qrz.com/ham/

 

To learn about upcoming exams, try this site: http://www.arrl.org/arrlvec/examsearch.phtml

 

Questions? Contact Gary Webbenhurst at 509-238-1122 or AB7NI@arrl.net

 

Good Luck!